Hi,
Can any one please help me out with this one: why is the following expression different in the KMV DtD formula and the Black Scholes formula where, as far as I understand, they are trying to achieve the same thing:
KMV: (u-0.5sigma^2)t
BS: (r+0.5sigma^2)t
so in KMV volatility is reducing the mean returns whereas in the BSM it is increasing the mean returns….?
Any help would be much appreciated!